ORIGINAL: strato911
Interesting topic... Perhaps you can explain why lottery numbers drawn in a similarly random method DON'T produce a bell curve.
Lotto draws are equal odds for each number. If probability were perfect, each number would appear the same number of times. Same as flipping a coin. You have two possible outcomes, each with an equal probability. After 10,000 tosses, you will most likely be in the range of 4700-5300 for each result.
With the balls falling through the matrix or frequency selection, we're on the other end of the spectrum since we have more than one factor affecting the outcome. If the balls were to drop through the matrix following strict 50/50, they would all stack up in the center column (and every frequency would have 3.2 users at his club). Since each chance of the ball moving left or right on the pin is an independent 50% chance, it is POSSIBLE, though improbable, that a ball will always move to the right or to the left... and it does happen with predictable regularity.
If one person were to randomly select one each of the 50 frequencies 500 times, he would most likely have a collection of 8-12 crystals of each frequency. Where this formula introduces the bell curve is when you take two (or 160) different people and match them up. You now have odds of 1:50 that person "A" will have a given frequency, and odds of 1:50 that person "B" will have a given frequency. The meshing of these odds is what forms the bell curve. The odds are now 2:100, and that is the subtle difference between 2:100 and (2:100)/2 (or 1:50).
'Scuze me... I need to go tune in my flux capacitor
