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Of course there is, but I am sometimes too lazy to do it myself...

I ask because unlike what most people think, piston acceleration is not the same at TDC and at BDC...

At BDC, the piston shift and acceleration is reduced by the con-rod big-end moving sideways.
At TDC, the piston shift and acceleration is increased by the con-rod big-end moving sideways.

The angular velocity of the con-rod big end is the same as that of the crankshaft (around a radius equal to half the stroke) and a different value, around a radius the full length of the con-rod.

Supposing a stroke of 24 mm, the radius 'r' is .012 meters and the speed 'v' is, at 19,000 RPM, 23.876 m/s.
Acceleration of the rod's big-end is in m/s squared is 'v' squared divided by 'r', or 570/.012 = 47,506 m/s squared, which are 4842 G. Supposing the con-rod is 1.8 times the stroke, so the radius is increased times 3.6 and is now .0342.

Piston acceleration at BDC is reduced by 16,667 m/s squared and is 30,839 m/s squared, or 3,143 G.
At TCD Piston acceleration is increased by this number and is 6,540 G.

...This is the very reason an inline four-cylinder engine, which has two pistons going down and two going up, or two at TDC and two at BDC, seemingly balancing each other out, has such strong secondary order vibrations at twice crankshaft speed.

Rod angularity is the cause for this vibration and if an engine has cam-driven pistons, that have neither con-rods, nor rod-angularity, this type of vibration can be averted.

But this belongs in another discussion...