My question is- why can pertinent posts by a bidder be blocked by a seller? I posted an inquiry into a model helicopter listing by a member complimenting him on the model and asking if he had any actual flight videos of the model that he represents as being a flying model. In the ad the seller has posted two youtube videos of the model, but in the "action" video it was clear that the model was manipulated to look as if it were flying when in reality it never did as was represented by the seller (to which he later admitted). Another member called him out on the videos and the seller deleted our posts. In the process, the seller broke forum rules by calling me an expletive (but masking a couple of letters with $ymb0ls) and deriding me for asking for clarification on the advertisement. I posted a polite, succinct explanation of what clarification I was looking for and why and then all posts in the ad were gone shortly thereafter.

Is this not a forum violation of etiquette and treading close to willful misrepresentation? The sellers actions have deliberately blocked any other members from making an informed purchase. Is there no standard of accountability? I'm not trying to flame him or his ad, just wanting clarification on the situation.

A seller can hide any posts made to his ad for any reason. It is his ad and he is free to control it as he sees best.

The seller can also block anyone he wishes from his ads for any reason.

None of this is in violation of the forum, or marketplace, rules.

The seller using profanity however is a different matter. I will take this up with the seller to be sure they understand our rules on profanity both real and implied.

Naw, leave it be. He deleted the stuff so no-one else can see it anymore.